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RichG

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~ The Relationship Between 432Hz and the Schumann Resonance ~


We've all heard about this, right? The "heartbeat of the Earth" and how it is in perfect resonance with 432Hz.

Umm, yeah....unfortunately such a relationship or resonance doesn't exist. Well, to be fair, everything is in relationship - like the shoes I'm wearing are in relationship to the tea I'm drinking.... but it's not a very close or meaningful relationship.

The common story says that since the primary Schumann Resonance is 7.83Hz, that's real close to a C=8Hz and if we raise this 8Hz value four octaves we get C=128Hz and then do the Pythagorean Circle of 5ths math we get an A=432Hz. Yes, that math is accurate, however rounding 7.83Hz up to an even 8Hz is not.

Here's a little reality math:
The Schumann Resonances (all of them) are constantly fluctuating a little bit, roughly plus or minus 0.5Hz. This is happening every day. 7.83Hz is the average value of the strongest resonance. The problem with the 432 story is in the rounding off. If we're talking about the difference between 4777.83Hz and 4778Hz, that 0.17Hz difference may well be insignifcant since it's a very small percentage of the number we're working with. However between 7.83 and 8.0 it is a much greater and far more consequential difference.

If we do the math without rounding off, 7.83Hz raised four octaves gives us a C=125.28Hz and then applying the Pythagorean 5ths math we arrive at A=422.82Hz. That's quite a bit different in terms of tuning than 432Hz!!

Now to reflect reality even more accurately, remember 7.83Hz is just the average, with the roughly accurate range of fluctuation being +/- 0.5Hz, thus the common and regular range being approximately 7.33Hz to 8.33Hz.
Doing the math with these numbers gives us an actual A-note range of 395.82Hz - 449.82Hz!!

Can anyone feel when the SR is giving us a projected or imagined A=395Hz or 449Hz "resonance" (assuming this Pythagorean calculation actually even means anything at all in terms of our energetic experience), let alone those passing moments when it might be giving us a calculated but not actually existing 432 or 440 resonance??
I'm willing to bet not. (Also remember that the Schumann resonances are electromagnetic waves, not sound waves.)

And yes, "assuming this Pythagorean calculation actually even means anything at all in terms of our energetic experience". I dare say that it may not. I'll even go as far as saying it really probably does not. Please read my other post about the Schumann Resonances. There are many of them. If they have any kind of effect on us at all I would think that effect would be greater than any produced by an abstract number reflecting a somewhat distant harmonic relationship that isn't actually being generated nor has any direct relationship to the actual series of resonances in question.

- Copyright 2019 Rich Goodhart


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Marti Dub

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Cool, thank you for this article. I am relatively new to this subject, I am trying to figure out how it all fits together. :)
You think a person cannot feel the passing of the freq from eg 400 Hz - 440 Hz. What about those with the perfect pitch? Don’t we all have an innate ability to actualy feel these differences, but are blured by our desensetized and roughened senses?
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RichG

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Quote:
Originally Posted by Marti Dub
Cool, thank you for this article. I am relatively new to this subject, I am trying to figure out how it all fits together. 😉
You think a person cannot feel the passing of the freq from eg 400 Hz - 440 Hz. What about those with the perfect pitch? Don’t we all have an innate ability to actualy feel these differences, but are blured by our desensetized and roughened senses?


Hi Marti,
Thank you for reading this and for your comment.
I apparently was not clear though. 
Yes, absolutely, I would hope most of us could hear the passing of a tone's frequency from 400 - 440Hz etc, that pitch movement is probably noticeable to nearly everyone, and certainly to people with perfect pitch who might also be able to tell what the approximate frequency range they are hearing.

But what I was referring to was the fluctuation of the primary Schumann Resonance between 7.33 - 8.33Hz - which only by a series of calculations do we get an imagined resonance with 432 (at those passing moments when the SR is 8.0Hz), or in actuality a fluctuating imagined resonance anywhere between 395 - 450Hz. That imagined or contrived "resonance" which we only see through the series of calculations and doesn't really exist, I am certain that no one feels it, and certainly doesn't hear it (we're talking about electromagnetic waves not sound waves). 

Can you or anyone tell us if the Schumann resonances just went up or down by a fraction of a Hz in the last ten minutes? I don't think so! [smile]

Sorry for the misunderstanding!


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Marti Dub

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Reply with quote  #4 
Okay I get it now, thank you very much for explaining further. I am trying to encompass this vast new knowledge (for me), I am sure that others understood you well! :) :)

But is it possible that we (or perhaps some animals) do percieve it in some way, on some level, just not consciously?
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RichG

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PS - Also significant to understand that the Pythagorean 5ths calculations that give us 432Hz in harmony with 8Hz only exist as a math exercise - this harmony is found in a man made tuning system and is NOT found in the naturally occuring harmonic series. In fact, it's a tuning system that is great for solo melody but NOT great for playing notes simultaneously in harmonic relationship.
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RichG

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Quote:
Originally Posted by Marti Dub
Okay I get it now, thank you very much for explaining further. I am trying to encompass this vast new knowledge (for me), I am sure that others understood you well! 😉 😉

But is it possible that we (or perhaps some animals) do percieve it in some way, on some level, just not consciously?

Is it possible that the Schumann resonances, and their fluctuations, are perceived on some level by us or some animals? Yes, I think that surely might be possible, though I've yet to see solid evidence that it is true. (Not saying the evidence doesn't exist, I just haven't seen it and couldn't find any when I researched this more extensively a year ago.)

Read my nearby Schumann Resonances article as well as the somewhat extensive accompanying commentary for more detail and understanding about this phenomenon.
https://soundhealingforum.discussion.community/post/getting-in-tune-with-the-schumann-resonances-10061051


Here's a quote I posted in that thread, from the Heartmath Institute, regarding their own research, and my comments on it:

3. “So, in summary, researchers have found evidence indicating that human health and behavior appear to be affected by changes in Schumann resonances. Possible future considerations for scientists with respect to the Schumann resonances include learning why some people are adversely affected by changes in them, why most people are not...”

Firstly, “appear to be affected by changes in SRs”. “Appear to” is not a conclusion, not a declaration of causation. Second and more importantly, their own research indicates that most people are NOT adversely affected by SR changes. Hmmm.... something to remember in any discussion of Schumann Resonances and their effects on humans.


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Marti Dub

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Reply with quote  #7 
Awesome, thank you for this material, I am so eager to understand it better. I am diving in!
Have a wonderful day!
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RichG

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Addendum:

 I usually try to make these things an easy read, and hopefully mildly entertaining... while keeping the sarcasm toned down to unoffensive levels! [cool]

In doing so, sometimes possibly valuable information is left out in keeping the whole thing succinct and to the point. Maybe the one most significant piece I didn't include in the original post above that we all should realize is that the Pythagorean 5ths tuning does NOT reflect any naturally occuring harmonics, beyond the first two calculations. The system stacks perfect 5ths on top of each other. Starting at C=128, the G=192 is of course accurate, and then the D=288 is as well, but going the next step to the A=432 and it veers away from naturally occuring harmonic relationships. Thus, the A=432Hz that we get by the Pythagorean system is significantly different from the A=426.66Hz that we find as a naturally occuring Just Intonation harmonic of C=128Hz (Or the octaves at 8Hz or 256Hz etc.... 256 x 5/3 = 426.66667)

So, if "432" even somehow actually meant something, AND rounding off 7.83Hz to 8Hz didn't cause any errors of its own - why would there be some sort of magical mystical perfection of resonance between that 8Hz and 432Hz when we only arrive at the idea of such a resonance through a manmade concept, not a naturally occuring phemonenon? On what basis would there be a claim of 432Hz being the "true" or "natural" or "real" tuning, in harmony with the primary Schumann resonance, when in fact there is no "true" or "natural" harmonic relationship found between those two numbers?


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